AP Environmental Science
Diagnostic Exam Corrections:
i. Earth Systems and Resources (# correct: 4/13)(% correct: 30%)
1. Approximately how old is the Earth?
4,500,000,000 years - The age of the Earth is approximately 4.5 billion years. This age is based on evidence from radiometric age dating of meteorite material and is consistent with the ages of the oldest-known terrestrial and lunar samples.
45,000,000,000 years - There's no proof that Earth formed that long ago.
2. An earthquake of Richter magnitude 2 releases times less energy than an earthquake of Richter magnitude 4?
100 - The Richter scale is logarithmic, meaning that whole-number jumps indicate a tenfold increase (or decrease) in wave amplitude; i.e., the wave amplitude in a level 2 earthquake is 100 times less than in a level 4 earthquake. However, the amount of energy released increases (or decreases) 31.7 times between whole number Richter values.
two -
3. The interface where tectonic plates slide or grind past each other in a horizontal direction is known as a
transform plate boundary - Transform plate boundaries are locations where two plates slide past one another. The fracture zone that forms a transform plate boundary is known as a transform fault. Most transform faults are are found in the ocean basin. Transform faults are locations of recurring earthquake activity and faulting.
convergent plate boundary - Convergent boundaries is where tectonic plates move toward each other and collide. When two plates move towards one another, they form a subduction zone.
5. Which of the following gases are considered "greenhouse gases"?
I. N2
II. CO2
III. CH4
IV. O3
V. H2O
II, III, IV, and V - Nitrogen is not a greenhouse gas because molecules containing two atoms of the same element, and monatomic gases such as argon, have no net change in their dipole moment when they vibrate and hence are almost totally unaffected by infrared radiation.
I, II, III, and IV - Nitrogen isn't a greenhouse gas, and the rest do have a contribution to the greenhouse effect.
6. Which area listed below would be found in the regions of the Earth influenced by Ferrel cells?
Southern Africa - The overall movement of surface air in the Ferrel cell occurs between the 30th and the 60th north and south latitudes. Ecuador and the majority of the US including mid-western states occur in the Hadley cell, which lies between 30 degrees north and 30 degrees south latitudes while Antarctica and Greenland are influenced by the polar cells.
Ecuador, near the equator -
7. Which of the following events about El Niño ate TRUE?
I. Just prior to El Niño, the sea surface warms in the eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean
II. Just prior to El Niño, trade winds weaken
III. During El Niño, the number of hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean increases
IV. During El Niño, upwelling increases along the western coast of South America resulting in large schools of fish
I and II - El Niño episodes are defined as sustained warming of the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean resulting in a decrease in the strength of the Pacific trade winds. A deeper thermocline (often observed during El Niño years) limits the amount of nutrients brought to shallower depths by upwelling processes, greatly impacting the year's fish crop.
I, III, and IV -
8. Water in areas of upwelling is generally
cold and high in nutrients - Upwelling is a phenomenon that involves wind-driven motion of dense, cooler, and usually nutrient-rich water toward the surface, replacing the warmer, usually nutrient-depleted surface water. The increased availability in upwelling regions results in high levels of primary productivity and thus fishery production. Approximately 25% of the total global marine fish catches comes from five upwellings that occupy only 5% of the total ocean area. Upwellings that are driven by coastal currents or diverging open ocean have the greatest impact on nutrient- enriched waters and global fishery yields.
warm and high in nutrients -
9. Which of the following choices lists the amount of freshwater available on Earth in the correct descending order?
Glaciers and ice caps> groundwater> lakes> soil moisture> atmospheric moisture> rivers and streams
Glaciers and ice caps> atmospheric moisture> groundwater> rivers and streams> soil moisture> lakes
11. Currently, the use of freshwater by humans is increasing at about rate of worldwide population growth.
twice the - Currently, 7 billion people use nearly 30% of the world's total accessible renewal supply of water. By 2025, with an estimated 8 billion people, that value is estimated to reach 70%.
eight times the -
4,500,000,000 years - The age of the Earth is approximately 4.5 billion years. This age is based on evidence from radiometric age dating of meteorite material and is consistent with the ages of the oldest-known terrestrial and lunar samples.
45,000,000,000 years - There's no proof that Earth formed that long ago.
2. An earthquake of Richter magnitude 2 releases times less energy than an earthquake of Richter magnitude 4?
100 - The Richter scale is logarithmic, meaning that whole-number jumps indicate a tenfold increase (or decrease) in wave amplitude; i.e., the wave amplitude in a level 2 earthquake is 100 times less than in a level 4 earthquake. However, the amount of energy released increases (or decreases) 31.7 times between whole number Richter values.
two -
3. The interface where tectonic plates slide or grind past each other in a horizontal direction is known as a
transform plate boundary - Transform plate boundaries are locations where two plates slide past one another. The fracture zone that forms a transform plate boundary is known as a transform fault. Most transform faults are are found in the ocean basin. Transform faults are locations of recurring earthquake activity and faulting.
convergent plate boundary - Convergent boundaries is where tectonic plates move toward each other and collide. When two plates move towards one another, they form a subduction zone.
5. Which of the following gases are considered "greenhouse gases"?
I. N2
II. CO2
III. CH4
IV. O3
V. H2O
II, III, IV, and V - Nitrogen is not a greenhouse gas because molecules containing two atoms of the same element, and monatomic gases such as argon, have no net change in their dipole moment when they vibrate and hence are almost totally unaffected by infrared radiation.
I, II, III, and IV - Nitrogen isn't a greenhouse gas, and the rest do have a contribution to the greenhouse effect.
6. Which area listed below would be found in the regions of the Earth influenced by Ferrel cells?
Southern Africa - The overall movement of surface air in the Ferrel cell occurs between the 30th and the 60th north and south latitudes. Ecuador and the majority of the US including mid-western states occur in the Hadley cell, which lies between 30 degrees north and 30 degrees south latitudes while Antarctica and Greenland are influenced by the polar cells.
Ecuador, near the equator -
7. Which of the following events about El Niño ate TRUE?
I. Just prior to El Niño, the sea surface warms in the eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean
II. Just prior to El Niño, trade winds weaken
III. During El Niño, the number of hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean increases
IV. During El Niño, upwelling increases along the western coast of South America resulting in large schools of fish
I and II - El Niño episodes are defined as sustained warming of the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean resulting in a decrease in the strength of the Pacific trade winds. A deeper thermocline (often observed during El Niño years) limits the amount of nutrients brought to shallower depths by upwelling processes, greatly impacting the year's fish crop.
I, III, and IV -
8. Water in areas of upwelling is generally
cold and high in nutrients - Upwelling is a phenomenon that involves wind-driven motion of dense, cooler, and usually nutrient-rich water toward the surface, replacing the warmer, usually nutrient-depleted surface water. The increased availability in upwelling regions results in high levels of primary productivity and thus fishery production. Approximately 25% of the total global marine fish catches comes from five upwellings that occupy only 5% of the total ocean area. Upwellings that are driven by coastal currents or diverging open ocean have the greatest impact on nutrient- enriched waters and global fishery yields.
warm and high in nutrients -
9. Which of the following choices lists the amount of freshwater available on Earth in the correct descending order?
Glaciers and ice caps> groundwater> lakes> soil moisture> atmospheric moisture> rivers and streams
Glaciers and ice caps> atmospheric moisture> groundwater> rivers and streams> soil moisture> lakes
11. Currently, the use of freshwater by humans is increasing at about rate of worldwide population growth.
twice the - Currently, 7 billion people use nearly 30% of the world's total accessible renewal supply of water. By 2025, with an estimated 8 billion people, that value is estimated to reach 70%.
eight times the -
II. The Living World (# correct: 9/14) (% Correct: 64%)
17. Which of the following represents intraspecific interaction(s)?
territoriality - Territoriality is behavior y a single animal, mating pair, or group of animals of the same species of an area occupied and often vigorously defended against intruders, especially those of the same species. All of the other choices are interspecific interactions.
N/A
18. The marine zone that is essentially open ocean, and whose flora includes surface seaweeds and whose fauna include many species of fish and some mammals, such as whales and dolphins, is known as the
pelagic zone -
territoriality - Territoriality is behavior y a single animal, mating pair, or group of animals of the same species of an area occupied and often vigorously defended against intruders, especially those of the same species. All of the other choices are interspecific interactions.
N/A
18. The marine zone that is essentially open ocean, and whose flora includes surface seaweeds and whose fauna include many species of fish and some mammals, such as whales and dolphins, is known as the
pelagic zone -
abyssal zone -
23. In New York City, where the quality of drinking water had fallen bellow standards required by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), authorities opted to restore the polluted Catskill Watershed. Once the input of sewage and pesticides to the watershed area was reduced, natural abiotic processes such as soil adsorption and filtration of chemicals, together with biotic recycling via root systems and soil microorganisms, water quality improved to levels that met government standards. The cost of this investments in natural capital was estimated between $1-1.5 billion, which contrasted dramatically with the estimated $6-8 billion cost off constructing a water filtration plant plus the $300 million annual running costs.
ecosystem services - Human kind benefits from a multitude of resources an processes that are supplied by natural ecosystems. Collectively, these benefits are known as ecosystem services and include products like clean drinking water and products like clean drinking water and processes such as the decomposition of wastes.
natural resource services -
26. Which of the following would be TRUE regarding succession?
I. Growth of lichen on rocks after a fire destroyed a forest is an example of primary succession
II. Growth of grasses on a newly formed sand dune is an example of secondary succession
III. Growth of algae on cooled lava rock is an example of secondary succession
IV. K- selected organisms are typical of primary succession
V. r- selected organisms are typical of secondary succession
None are true - Primary succession occurs in biotic communities in a previously uninhabited with little or no soil. Secondary succession is a process started by a natural disaster that reduces an already established ecosystem to a smaller population of species. Secondary succession is usually faster than primary succession as soil is already present. Characteristics of r- selection (bacteria, insects, and weed) include: ability to produce many offspring, small body size, early maturity onset, short generation time. Characteristics of K- selection (elephants, trees, humans, and whales) include: large body size, long life expectancy, and production of fewer offspring.
II, IV, and V -
27. The first compound that ammonia is converted into in the nitrogen cycles is
nitrite - The conversion of ammonium to nitrate is preformed primarily by soil-living bacteria and other nitrifying bacteria. In the primary stage of nitrification, the oxidation of ammonium is preformed by bacteria, which converts ammonia to nitrites.
nitrate - It's not the first compound that ammonia is converted into in the nitrogen cycle. Other bacterial species are responsible for the oxidation of the nitrites into nitrates.
23. In New York City, where the quality of drinking water had fallen bellow standards required by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), authorities opted to restore the polluted Catskill Watershed. Once the input of sewage and pesticides to the watershed area was reduced, natural abiotic processes such as soil adsorption and filtration of chemicals, together with biotic recycling via root systems and soil microorganisms, water quality improved to levels that met government standards. The cost of this investments in natural capital was estimated between $1-1.5 billion, which contrasted dramatically with the estimated $6-8 billion cost off constructing a water filtration plant plus the $300 million annual running costs.
ecosystem services - Human kind benefits from a multitude of resources an processes that are supplied by natural ecosystems. Collectively, these benefits are known as ecosystem services and include products like clean drinking water and products like clean drinking water and processes such as the decomposition of wastes.
natural resource services -
26. Which of the following would be TRUE regarding succession?
I. Growth of lichen on rocks after a fire destroyed a forest is an example of primary succession
II. Growth of grasses on a newly formed sand dune is an example of secondary succession
III. Growth of algae on cooled lava rock is an example of secondary succession
IV. K- selected organisms are typical of primary succession
V. r- selected organisms are typical of secondary succession
None are true - Primary succession occurs in biotic communities in a previously uninhabited with little or no soil. Secondary succession is a process started by a natural disaster that reduces an already established ecosystem to a smaller population of species. Secondary succession is usually faster than primary succession as soil is already present. Characteristics of r- selection (bacteria, insects, and weed) include: ability to produce many offspring, small body size, early maturity onset, short generation time. Characteristics of K- selection (elephants, trees, humans, and whales) include: large body size, long life expectancy, and production of fewer offspring.
II, IV, and V -
27. The first compound that ammonia is converted into in the nitrogen cycles is
nitrite - The conversion of ammonium to nitrate is preformed primarily by soil-living bacteria and other nitrifying bacteria. In the primary stage of nitrification, the oxidation of ammonium is preformed by bacteria, which converts ammonia to nitrites.
nitrate - It's not the first compound that ammonia is converted into in the nitrogen cycle. Other bacterial species are responsible for the oxidation of the nitrites into nitrates.
III. Population (# Correct: 4/12) (% correct: 33%)
28. Which of the following are examples of density-independent factors that control population growth?
I. Droughts and floods
II. Fires
III. Use of pesticides
IV. Release of a pollutant
V. Overhunting and fishing
All choices are correct examples - A density-independent factor is one in which the effect of the factor on the size of the population is independent of and does NOT depend upon the original density or size of the population; e.g., a severe storm and flood coming through an area can just as easily wipe out a large population as a small one.
III, IV, and V -
29. The graph below is of a paramecium population growing in culture over a period of 30 hours. If food is a limiting factor for this population, then increasing the amount of food available in the water at the beginning of the experiment will...
have no effect on the population density between 0 and 15 hours - Having extra food in the water between 0 and 15 hours will generally not affect the population density during this time period. Assuming ideal conditions with more than enough food available during this time period, the paramecium are already reproducing at their maximum capacity. However, if there is extra food available at all times during the 30 hours of the experiment, then the time period of exponential growth is extended, increasing the population density until a point is reached that another limiting factor such oxygen content in the water begins to affect the density of paramecium that can survive; at which point a new carrying capacity is established.
increase the population density between 0-15 hours -
30. Consider the following organism
I. Elephant
II. Weeds
III. Mice
IV. Acorn tree
V. Mosquitoes
Which of the above would be considered K- strategists
I and IV - In stable or predictable environments, K- selection predominates, as the ability to compete successfully for limited resources is crucial. It includes large organisms like elephants, humans, trees, and whales.
I - Elephants are considered K- strategists, but I didn't know that trees were also part of K- strategists.
32. Examine the following diagram.
Which of the choices above would be a characteristic survivorship curve for a songbird?
D - Choice D is known as a Type II survivorship curve and is typical of species in which a fairly constant mortality rate is experienced regardless of age. Type I survivorship curves (E) are characterized by high survival in early and middle life, followed by a rapid decline in survivorship in later life. Humans are one of the species that show this pattern of survivorship. In Type III curves (B), the greatest mortality is experienced early on in life, with relatively low rates of death for those surviving this bottleneck. This type of curve is characteristic of species that produce large number of offspring, e.g., frogs.
N/A
33. Examine the diagram below.
Which of the following statements are TRUE of Stage 2?
I. This stage would be typical for countries today such as Afghanistan and much of sub-Saharan Africa
II. Decline in death rates is primarily due to improvements in the food supply brought about by higher yields in agricultural practices and better transportation, which prevent death due to starvation and lack of water. Agricultural improvements included crop rotation, selective breeding, and seed drill technology.
III. Improvements in water supply, sewage treatment, food handling, and general personal hygiene following from growing scientific knowledge of the causes of disease and the improved education and social status of mothers are primarily responsible for decreasing the death rate.
IV. Growth in population is primarily due to an increase in death rates, not fertility rates.
V. The age structure of the population becomes increasingly older as more and more people live longer.
I, II, and III - Stage 2 sees a rise in population caused by a decline in the death rate while the birth rate remains high, or perhaps even rises slightly. The decline in the death rate is due initially to two factors: (1) improvements in food supply brought about by higher yields as agricultural practices were improved in the Agricultural Revolution of the 18th century and (2) significant improvements in public health that reduced mortality, particularly in childhood. As a consequence, there an increasingly rapid rise in population growth (a "population explosion") as the gap between deaths and births grows wider, not due to an increase in fertility but to a decline in deaths, which results in the increasing survival of children. Hence, the age structure of the population becomes increasingly youthful. This trend is intensified as these increasing numbers of children enter into reproduction while maintaining the high fertility rate of their parents.
N/A
34. A country with an annual population growth rate of 5% would double its population in approximately how many years?
14 years - The Rule-of-70 provides a simple way to calculate the approximate number of years it takes for the level of a variable growing at a constant rate to double. This rule states that the approximate number of years n for a variable growing at the constant growth rate of R percent, to double is n= 70/r= 70/5= 14
N/A
37. The most populous countries in the world are India, China, and
United States
N/A
39. Worldwide human population growth within the last 100 years is primarily due to
decrease in the death rate - The combination of decreasing death rate due to the march of progress in sanitation and medicine, coupled later with the decrease in birthrate due to changes in the economies, has led to a significant change in the population growth in the developed world.
immigration -
increase the population density between 0-15 hours -
30. Consider the following organism
I. Elephant
II. Weeds
III. Mice
IV. Acorn tree
V. Mosquitoes
Which of the above would be considered K- strategists
I and IV - In stable or predictable environments, K- selection predominates, as the ability to compete successfully for limited resources is crucial. It includes large organisms like elephants, humans, trees, and whales.
I - Elephants are considered K- strategists, but I didn't know that trees were also part of K- strategists.
32. Examine the following diagram.
Which of the choices above would be a characteristic survivorship curve for a songbird?
D - Choice D is known as a Type II survivorship curve and is typical of species in which a fairly constant mortality rate is experienced regardless of age. Type I survivorship curves (E) are characterized by high survival in early and middle life, followed by a rapid decline in survivorship in later life. Humans are one of the species that show this pattern of survivorship. In Type III curves (B), the greatest mortality is experienced early on in life, with relatively low rates of death for those surviving this bottleneck. This type of curve is characteristic of species that produce large number of offspring, e.g., frogs.
N/A
33. Examine the diagram below.
Which of the following statements are TRUE of Stage 2?
I. This stage would be typical for countries today such as Afghanistan and much of sub-Saharan Africa
II. Decline in death rates is primarily due to improvements in the food supply brought about by higher yields in agricultural practices and better transportation, which prevent death due to starvation and lack of water. Agricultural improvements included crop rotation, selective breeding, and seed drill technology.
III. Improvements in water supply, sewage treatment, food handling, and general personal hygiene following from growing scientific knowledge of the causes of disease and the improved education and social status of mothers are primarily responsible for decreasing the death rate.
IV. Growth in population is primarily due to an increase in death rates, not fertility rates.
V. The age structure of the population becomes increasingly older as more and more people live longer.
I, II, and III - Stage 2 sees a rise in population caused by a decline in the death rate while the birth rate remains high, or perhaps even rises slightly. The decline in the death rate is due initially to two factors: (1) improvements in food supply brought about by higher yields as agricultural practices were improved in the Agricultural Revolution of the 18th century and (2) significant improvements in public health that reduced mortality, particularly in childhood. As a consequence, there an increasingly rapid rise in population growth (a "population explosion") as the gap between deaths and births grows wider, not due to an increase in fertility but to a decline in deaths, which results in the increasing survival of children. Hence, the age structure of the population becomes increasingly youthful. This trend is intensified as these increasing numbers of children enter into reproduction while maintaining the high fertility rate of their parents.
N/A
34. A country with an annual population growth rate of 5% would double its population in approximately how many years?
14 years - The Rule-of-70 provides a simple way to calculate the approximate number of years it takes for the level of a variable growing at a constant rate to double. This rule states that the approximate number of years n for a variable growing at the constant growth rate of R percent, to double is n= 70/r= 70/5= 14
N/A
37. The most populous countries in the world are India, China, and
United States
N/A
39. Worldwide human population growth within the last 100 years is primarily due to
decrease in the death rate - The combination of decreasing death rate due to the march of progress in sanitation and medicine, coupled later with the decrease in birthrate due to changes in the economies, has led to a significant change in the population growth in the developed world.
immigration -
IV. Land and Water Use (# correct: 1/13) (% correct: 7%)
40. Which of the following was NOT a major component of the First Green Revolution?
Genetic engineering of food crops - Genetically modified crops are crops that have been genetically engineered or modified in a lab setting.
N/A
41. Which type of insecticide developed during the 19th century affects the nervous system of an insect by disrupting the enzyme that regulates acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter? They usually are not persistent in the environment. Common examples include parathion and malathion.
Organophosphates - Are the most widely used group of insecticides used in the world today and are generally among the most acutely toxic of all pesticides to vertebrate animals. They are also unstable and therefore break down relatively quickly in the environment.
N/A
42. Which of the following is NOT a principle of integrated pest management (IPM)?
Using broad, non-specific insecticides to reduce or eliminate all pest populations before they have a chance to get out of control - In addition to (A), (B), (C), and (E), IPM also includes (1) biological controls, which promote beneficial insects that eat target pests and (2) responsible pesticide use, which is generally only used as required and often only at specific times in a pest's life cycle. Many of the newer pesticide groups are derived from plants or naturally occurring substances (e.g., nicotine, pyrethrum, and insect juvenile hormone analogues).
N/A
43. The type of timber-harvesting method shown below is known as
Genetic engineering of food crops - Genetically modified crops are crops that have been genetically engineered or modified in a lab setting.
N/A
41. Which type of insecticide developed during the 19th century affects the nervous system of an insect by disrupting the enzyme that regulates acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter? They usually are not persistent in the environment. Common examples include parathion and malathion.
Organophosphates - Are the most widely used group of insecticides used in the world today and are generally among the most acutely toxic of all pesticides to vertebrate animals. They are also unstable and therefore break down relatively quickly in the environment.
N/A
42. Which of the following is NOT a principle of integrated pest management (IPM)?
Using broad, non-specific insecticides to reduce or eliminate all pest populations before they have a chance to get out of control - In addition to (A), (B), (C), and (E), IPM also includes (1) biological controls, which promote beneficial insects that eat target pests and (2) responsible pesticide use, which is generally only used as required and often only at specific times in a pest's life cycle. Many of the newer pesticide groups are derived from plants or naturally occurring substances (e.g., nicotine, pyrethrum, and insect juvenile hormone analogues).
N/A
43. The type of timber-harvesting method shown below is known as
shelterwood cutting - In a shelterwood cut, mature trees are removed in two or three harvests over a period of 10 to 15 years. This method allows regeneration of medium to low shade-tolerant species because a "shelter"is left to protect them.
N/A
44. Which of the choices below are effective method(s) of remediating the effects of desertification?
I. Reforestation
II. Fixating the soil through the use of shelter belts, woodlots, and windbreaks or sand fences
III. Planting legumes
IV. Enabling native sprouting tree growth through selective pruning of shrub growth
V. Planting market gardens to keep soil from blowing away
I, II, III, IV - Market gardening is growing of vegetables and flowers on suburban land of high value for the supply of nearby cities. Heavy fertilizing, regular watering, and the planting of successive crops are employed to obtain continuous returns from the acreage.
N/A
45. Which of the following is a characteristic of urban sprawl?
Job sprawl - It's defined as low-density, geographically spread-out patterns of employment, where the majority of jobs in a given metropolitan area are located outside of the main city's central business district and suburbs. It is often the result of urban disinvestment and the desire of many companies to locate in low-density areas that are often more affordable and offer potential for expansion.
N/A
46.During which U.S. presidency did the first federal highway system develop?
Dwight Eisenhower (1953-1961) - In 1919, it took two months for a military convoy to travel by roads from Washington, D.C. to San Francisco. Later, when Eisenhower was a general during WWII, he had first-hand knowledge of the German autobahn.The Federal-Aid Highway Act of 1956 extended the federal highway system with a minimum of two wider lanes in each direction and larger paved shoulders and was designed for traveling at 50-70 mph.
Franklin Roosevelt (1933-1945) - The first federal highway system act was developed about 10 years after his presidency.
47. Which of the following lists land use in order from the smallest collective area on Earth to the largest?
Cities< forests< agricultural - Cities occupy approximately 5% of the Earth's land surface; forests occupy approximately 1/3 of the Earth's surface; and land used for agriculture occupies 1/2 of all the Earth's land surface.
Forests< agricultural< cities
48. Which agency listed below is responsible for the management of public lands?
Bureau of Land Management - BLM is an agency within the U.S. Department of the Interior, which administers America's public lands, totaling 1/8 of the landmass of the United States. The BLM's stated mission is to sustain the health, diversity, and productivity of the public lands for the use and enjoyment of present and future generations.
N/A
49. Rainwater runoff from US Route 7 in South Burlington, Vermont polluted local streams that fed into Lake Champlain, a source of drinking water. The city of South Burlington and the Vermont Agency of Natural Resources constructed a storm water treatment system along Bartlett Brook to control the pollution. The project also included the cleanup and widening of a stream channel and creation of a new wetland in the area from an area that had once been occupied by an industrial factory. This is an example of environmental
mitigation - Environmental mitigation involves steps taken to avoid or minimize negative environmental impacts. Mitigation can include: avoiding the impact by not taking a certain action; minimizing impacts by limiting the degree or magnitude of the action; rectifying the impact by repairing or restoring the affected environment; reducing the impact by protective steps required with action; and/or compensating for the impact by replacing or providing substitute resources.
N/A
50. The type of mining that produces 85% of minerals (excluding petroleum and natural gas) in the United States, including 98% of metallic ores, is known as
surface mining - Surface mining is done by removing (stripping) surface vegetation, dirt, and if necessary layers of bedrock in order to reach buried ore deposits.
N/A
51. The type of fishing illustrated bellow is
purse seining - It establishes a large wall of netting to encircle schools of fish. Fishermen pull the bottom of the netting closed to, to herd fish into the center.
trolling - It's a method of fishing where one or more fishing lines, baited with lures or bait fish, are drawn through the water. This may be behind a moving boat, or by slowly winding the line in when fishing from a static position, or even sweeping the line from side-to-side, e.g. when fishing from a jetty.
trolling - It's a method of fishing where one or more fishing lines, baited with lures or bait fish, are drawn through the water. This may be behind a moving boat, or by slowly winding the line in when fishing from a static position, or even sweeping the line from side-to-side, e.g. when fishing from a jetty.
V. Energy/rESOURCES AND Consumption (# correct: 2/15) (% correct: 13%)
53. A store uses one-hundred 200-watt lightbulbs for 10 hours per day. How many kilowatt-hours of electrical energy are used in one year if the store is open 50 weeks per year, 6 days per week?
60,000 - 100 lightbulbs/1 x 200 watts/1 lightbulb x 10 hours/1 day x 6 days/ 1 week x 50 weeks/1 year x 1 kilowatt/1,000 watts= 60,000 kilowatt x hrs/year
30,000,000 - No calculations done, I guessed.
54. The gas mileage of one model of the 2003 Hummer 2 was determined to be 8 miles per gallon. The 2012 Mitsubishi i-MiEV is an all-electric vehicle and when using a conversion factor to convert the fuel economy into miles per gallon of gasoline equivalent (MPGe), it is rated at 112 miles per gallon of gasoline. How much more efficient in fuel consumption is the all-electric vehicle over the Hummer 2?
1300% - The percent change is calculated as % =( Vf - Vi/Vi )100% where Vf is the final value and Vi is the initial value. Therefore, % = 112-8/8 x 100% = 1300%
N/A
55. In an internal combustion automobile engine, only about 20% of the hiigh quality chemical energy available in the gasoline converted to mechanical energy used to propel the car; the remaining 80% is degraded low-quality heat that is released into the environment. In addition, about 50% of the mechanical energy produced is also degraded to low-quality heat energy through friction, so that 90% of the energy in gasoline is wasted and not used to move the car. This best illustrates which principle below?
Second Law of Thermodynamics - States that energy varies in its quality or ability to do useful work. For useful work to occur, energy must move from high concentrated to low concentrated energy. The chemical potential energy concentrated in a tank of gasoline is an example of high-quality energy.
N/A
56. Per capita, the United States uses about amount of oil per day in China.
ten times the - The U.S. consumes about 19 million barrels (800 million gallons) of oil per day; oil that is used to produce gasoline, manufacturing products, heating and power, etc.
half the - I guessed, based on the fact that The U.S. and China are developed industry states.
57. In the United States, on average, energy is used to heat homes than is used to cool them.
250% - The amount of energy required for heating a home far outpaces that used to cool it.For most of the U.S., on average, the temperature difference in the winter is about twice that of the summer to maintain an indoor temperature of 75 degrees F (24 degrees C).
50% more -
59. The estimated natural gas reserves in the Unites States are estimated at 2,170 trillion cubic feet (Tcf). The rate of consumption of natural gas in the United States is approximately 62 billion cubic feet per day. Approximately how long will the United States natural gas reserves last at the current rate of consumption?
100 years -
N/A
60. Which of the following has the largest potential negative environmental impact on global warming?
Natural gas - It's mostly methane; when burned produces 45% less carbon dioxide than coal and 30% less carbon dioxide than oil. However, methane is 20 times more dangerous for greenhouse warming than carbon dioxide does.
Oil - Produces more carbon dioxide than natural gas but doesn't contribute to greenhouse emissions and global warming as much.
61. Which country listed below obtains the greatest percentage of its electricity from nuclear power?
France - Nuclear power provides about 80% of the electricity produced in France compared to 20% for the United States, and France's electricity price is among the lowest in Europe.
N/A
63. Which of the following methods of producing electricity is the MOST efficient?
Hydroelectric power plants - Much of the energy content of the available energy sources is wasted by inefficiencies due to the energy conversion and distribution processes.
Wind power - I thought the production of electricity from wind was much accessible and efficient than any other method.
64. Which of the following is the LEAST likely environmental consequence of building hydroelectric dams?
Dams increase silting downstream - Dams built across rivers slow down the river's flow and cause sediments in the water to deposit to the bottom of the reservoir behind the dam. As the sediments accumulate in the reservoir, the dam gradually loses its ability to store water.
Dams increase the risk of predation - I thought it brought animals together into a smaller area and that increased predation.
65. Which government agency administers and regulates CAFE standards?
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) - The NHTSA administers the CAFE program and sets fuel economy standards for cars and light trucks sold in the U.S.
N/A
66. A 42 watt CFL (compact fluorescent light) bulb produces 2,600 lumens of light, lasts approximately 10,000 hours, and costs $13.00. A 150-watt incandescent lightbulb produces the same amount of light, lasts only 1,000 hours, and costs $2.00. If electricity runs $0.10 per kWh, how much will the CFL save over the lifetime of the bulb compared to using the incandescent bulbs?
$115.00 - To begin with, you will need to buy 10 incandescent lightbulbs to last the same amount of time as the CFL: 10 X $2.00 = $20. By buying the CFL, you therefore save $20- $13 = $7.
N/A
67. Which of the following renewable energy sources listed below is used the LEAST in the United States?
Solar -
Biomass -
VI. Pollution (# correct: 4/24) (% correct: 16%)
69. Which of the following would NOT be classified as a criteria pollutant?
Carbon dioxide - Criteria pollutants are pollutants that do the most harm to humans. In addition to those listed by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), nitrogen dioxide, and lead are also included.
Ozone -
70. 1,500 parts per billion would be the same concentration as parts per million.
1.5 - 1,500 parts/1 billion x 1 billion/ 1,000,000,000 parts x 1,000,000 parts/1 million = 1.5 ppm
N/A
71. Which one of the criteria pollutants listed below contributes to the formation of both acid deposition AND photopchemical smog?
NO2 - Nitrogen dioxide reacts with water vapor to form nitrous acid and nitric acid, which are both components found in acid deposition (rain). If the concentration of nitrogen dioxide is greater than the concentration of nitric oxide, then ozone is formed and can reach dangerous levels.
SO2
72. During the summer months, Los Angeles, California often experiences a temperature inversion. During this event
Stable warm air lies above a mass of colder air, trapping air particulates close to the ground - Temperature inversion usually occur in urban areas when air pollutants are trapped close to the ground are not able to rise into the atmosphere. Under normal conditions, warmer air, which is less dense than cooler air, will rise into the cooler atmosphere above. However, during a temperature inversion, the air above a city is warm, which prevents the polluted warmer air from rising, causing smog levels to increase, which results in increased respiratory distress.
N/A
73. Given the following pollutants
I. CFCs
II. VOCs
III. Radon
IV. PANs
V. Asbestos
Which are NOT naturally occurring indoor air pollutants?
I, II, and IV - "Naturally occurring" means occurring in nature in a free state. Both radon and asbestos are found in nature and are sometimes found in indoor air samples.
N/A
74. Which of the following criteria were used for acceptable exposure to specific air pollutants as addressed in the National Ambient Air Quality Standards set forth by the Clean Air Act?
I. The amount of time exposed to the air pollutant
II. The concentration of the air pollutant
III. The toxicity of the air pollutant
IV. The LD50 of the air pollutant
V. The number of people that would be at risk if exposed to the air pollutant
I, and II - NAAQS are standards established by the U.S. EPA under authority of the Clean Air Act that apply for outdoor air throughout the country.
N/A
75. Which of the following statement(s) regarding noise pollution is/are TRUE?
I. Noise pollution is a significant occupational hazard and is regulated and enforced by the Environmental Protection Agency.
II. Sound measured at 40 decibels is twice as loud as sound measured at 20 decibels.
III. Noise pollution is not a serious threat in the oceans as organisms that live underwater do not hear.
IV. The Office of Noise Abatement and Control of the Environment Protection Agency (EPA) is currently charged with regulating and overseeing noise-abatement activities.
All statements are false - Noise pollution in the workplace is regulated and enforced by OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) a branch of the U.S. Department of Labor.
N/A
76. Which of the following forms of water affects the largest number of people worldwide?
Waterborne pathogens and diseases - The World Health Organization (WHO) has estimated that about 1 billion people globally lack basic access to drinking water resources, while about 2.5 billion people have inadequate sanitation facilities, which accounts for many water- related acute and chronic diseases.
Water containing pollutants from industrial factories
77. An APES class was doing a field study of effluent water entering a river through a large drainage pipe from a large building. Which of the following would be a logical conclusion based upon their observations?
The students detected measurable amounts of coliform bacteria in the river near the drainage pipe and concluded that the building could be a meatpacking plant. - In choice (A), hot water does not promote the growth of algae-phosphates and/or nitrates do.In choice (C), finding high concentrations of metal ions upstream of the drainage pipe would generally rule the factory. In choice (D), large numbers of insect larvae, also known as indicator species, probably indicate that the water this far from the factory may be very clean.
N/A
78. Groundwater contamination is addressed in all of he following EXCEPT the
Clean Water Act - It was passed in 1972, and enacted to reduce point source pollution and addressed protecting surface water. It did not directly address groundwater contamination.
Superfund
79. An APES class measured the biological oxygen demand (BOD) along an 8-mile stretch of a stream. Their results are presented above.
BOD indicates
the rate at which oxygen is being consumed by microorganisms living in the water - Biochemical oxygen demand or BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by aerobic biological organisms in a body of water to break down organic material present in a given water sample at a certain temperature over a specific time period. The term also refers to chemical procedure for determining this amount.
N/A
80. At which point on the graph would you expect to find the higher concentration of anaerobic bacteria?
B - Anaerobic decomposition is a biological process in which decomposition of organic matter occurs without oxygen. The area of the graph of the graph where oxygen in the water is lowest is the area where BOD is the highest.
N/A
82. Most solid municipal wastes in the United States are disposed of by
taking them to sanitary landfills - They are one of the most popular forms of waste disposal in the U.S, primarily because they are the least expensive way to dispose waste.
burning them at large municipal incinerators
83.Three "environmental friendly" methods of dealing with waste disposal are to reuse, reduce, and recycle. Which of the following choices places these methods in order of increasing amounts of energy required for that particular process?
Reduce< reuse< recycle - Waste reduction is the least expensive option.
Reuse< recycle< reduce - I thought that reusing increased the amount of energy required.
84. A group of workers at a nuclear power plant received an acute exposure of radiation. This means
the workers received a high dosage of radiation in a very short time period - An acute exposure refers to a single exposure to a harmful substance that results in severe biological harm or death.
the workers received a low dosage of radiation over a long time period.
85. A laboratory was testing the effectiveness of a new insecticide. The laboratory determined that the LD50 dosage level for rats was 150 milligrams per kilogram of body mass. Based on this information, which of the following statements would be most accurate?
Fifty out of 100 rats receiving 150 milligrams of the new insecticide per kilogram of body mass would die. - The median lethal dose, LD50 of a toxin, radiation, or pathogens the dose required to kill half the members of a tested population after a specified test duration.
N/A
87. Which point represents the treshold?
C - The first point along the graph where a response above zero is reached is referred to as the treshold dose.
A - I didn't know which point was at treshold
89. Of the indoor pollutants that are listed below, which one has the highest total health care costs, affects the most people, and causes the most deaths?
endocrine disrupter
mutagen
90. The most common and generally considered one of the most effective methods of disposing of hazardous waste is to
dispose of the waste in a hazardous waste landfill
incinerate the waste at a high temperature
91. Which of the following acts addresses and regulates the disposal of hazardous wastes?
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
Hazardous Waste Control Act
VII. GLOBAL CHANGE (# CORRECT: 0/9) (% CORRECT: 0%)
92. If the price of a barrel of oil from the Middle East were to suddenly double, it would
make it economically feasible to explore for new sources of oil within the United States, thereby increasing the supply, which would decrease the price for oil
N/A
93. Currently, the gas contributing most to stratospheric ozone breakdown is
Nitrous oxide released from livestock manure, sewage treatment, and industrial processes.
N/A
94. An increase in greenhouse gases increases tropospheric temperatures. If ice melts due to global warming, it affects the Earth's albedo. Which of the following statements would be true regarding the effect of melting ice and its effect on the Earth's albedo
Melting ice would decrease the Earth's albedo resulting in more heat being absorbed, resulting in more ice melting in what would be known as a positive feedback loop.
N/A
95. Which of the following was instrumental in significantly reducing the production of chlorofluorocarbons?
Montreal Protocol
N/A
96.The majority of the natural greenhouse effect is due to which gas listed below?
Water vapor (H2O) - By quantity, there is much more water vapor than carbon dioxide in the atmosphere; it accounts for about 80% of total greenhouse gas mass and 90% of greenhouse gas volume.
Carbon dioxide (CO2) - The question says "greenhouse effect" not "global warming"
97. Which of the following factors are primary reasons why sea level is rising?
I. Thermal expansion of the oceans
II. More frequent rain and flooding
III. Melting of sea ice
IV. Melting of land-based ice
I and IV - The first factor that contributes to sea level rise is thermal expansion: as ocean water warms, it expands. The second is from the contribution of land-based ice due to increased melting.
III and IV
98. Which countries listed below have stated they would not agree to any futher reductions in greenhouse gas emissions under an updated Kyoto Protocol (Doha Amendment) set to expire in 2020?
I. Canada
II. China
III. Japan
IV. Russia
V. United States
I, III, IV, and V - The Kyoto protocol is an international treaty that commits countries to reduce greenhouse gases emissions based on the premise that (a) global warming exists and (b) man-made CO2 emissions have caused it.
II only
99. The greates threats to a species' survival are generally considered to be
I. Lack of food
II. Pollution
III. Poaching
IV. Invasive species
V. Loss of habitat
IV and V - Most scientist believe that (1) invasive species or the introduction of non-native species into regions never before occupied by the species and (2) loss of habitat or the destruction or splitting up of a once continuous habitat to enable humans to use the land (e.g., agriculture, development of towns and cities, construction of dams) are the primary threats to a species' survival.
II and V
100. Which international agreement has been helpful in protecting endangered animals and plants by listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled?
CITES - The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments. Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.
N/A